Monday, August 30, 2010

NTPC Placement Paper 12 April 2009

NTPC  Exam held on  12 April 2009

Electrical Engineering

1. What is causal system?
2. Shunt reactor is used in EHV transmission line for
3. 20w, 40W, & 200w lamps are connected to three phases if neutral wire breaks then
which lamp will fuse first? 1) 20 2)40 3)200 three lamps will fuse together.
4. Synchronous machine can be operated at both lagging and leading power factor
5 What does synchronous speed mean?
6. Frequency of emf generated per rotation of rotor is equal to.
7. DC machine having wave winding is wounded as lap winding what will be the effect
on emf generated
8 Which is remain unchanged in transformer action?
9. In transformer windings are connected.?
10. In general how transformer is rated?
11. What is given on the name plate of motor? 1) KW 2) KVA 3) output shaft power
12. Short circuit test of transformer gives what?
13. Transformer core are laminated for what purpose?
14. What is supply voltage for heavy industry .1) 33KV 2) 11KV 3) 132 KV 4) 66KV
15. Basic structure SCR as a two transistor i.e. how they are connected?
16. What is Triac?
17. System admittance is (G+jB) what is reactive power absorbed if the voltage is V KV?
(1) V (square)*B (2) V (square)*g .
18. In series R-L circuit what is phase difference between the voltage drop across R and
19. Power factor is cosine (delta ) delta is the angle between 1) phase voltage phase
current 2)
Line voltage lone current 3) phase voltage line current 4) line voltage phase current.
20. Laplace of exp (-at)?
21. For series R-L-C circuit the load will be capacitive if the frequency is 1) greater than
the resonant frequency 2) less than the resonant frequency 3).
22. In Wiens bridge which circuit elements determine the frequency range?
23. What is the output if two booster having duty cycle K and (K-1) are connected in
24. If a DC shunt motor is loaded from unloaded condition what will be effect of on
terminal voltage?
25. A second wire system having one pole one right half of the s-plane. When the system
will be stable?
26. A system having repetitive pole what will be effect on the gain at the cross over
27. Hollow conductor is used to reduce corona loss how does it reduce the loss?
28. In DC machine how voltage is related to flux?
29. Nature of current and voltage in the armature and at the terminal in DC machine.
30. Motor acts on the principle of ..rule
31. Which instrument measure both ac and dc?
32. How the rotation of induction motor is reversed?
33. If 3-phaseof a 3- phase balance load are reversed what will be the effect on the line
34. If the rating of VAR absorber is 50MVAR at 400KV. What will the VAR absorbed
by the absorber at 300KV?
35. In regenerative breaking of DC series motor what is done?
36. Definitions of Fourier transform?
37. Laplace of f(t) is F(S) what is Laplace of f(t+T) .
38. Z-transform of sampled function x(n) for n>0.
39. Laplace transform of impulse function.
40. Z-transform of unity.
41. How many slip rings are there in 3phase synchronous motor?
42. How the speed of synchronous motor is controlled?
43. Speed control of induction motor?
44. When power supply is supplied to heater coil it glows while simple wire does not
glow. Why?
45. A synchronous generator having inertia constant 4 and having rating of 100MVA.
What will be energy stored by the machine?
46. A transformer having ratio 20:1. The secondary load is 0.6 ohm and the voltage
across it is 6 V what will be the primary current?
47. A RC circuit having r=0.8ohm, c=2.5micofarad what will be the time constant?
48. Find load impedance if c=0.1 micro farad?
49. Two capacitors connected in series the equivalent capacitance is 0.03uf and when
connected in parallel the equivalent capacitance is 0.16uf find out the ratio of the two
50. An L-c circuit having frequency 1/sqrt (LC) what will the equivalent impedance?
51. An inverting op-am having input with resistance in series and a capacitance in
feedback operates as a.?
52. A current having fundamental and third harmonics what will be the rms value of the
53. Peak to peak value of voltage if rms voltage is 100V.
54. Rms voltage.
55. What is the approx efficiency of nuclear power plant?
56. What is the average current of a single phase full wave rectifier firing at angle alpha?
57. What is the function of freewheeling diode?
58. When SCR stops conduction? (holding current)
59. For measuring current why shunt resistance is used?
60. For economic operation of plant what is the condition?(taking into account the
penalty factor)
61. Incremental fuel cost of two plants is given and a load is given. Find out the load
sharing for economic operation of the plant?
62. A two port network is represented by ABCD parameters. What will be condition for
the two port network to be symmetrical?
63. Size of the conductor is determined by .
64. Which Surface is suitable for grounding?

Engineering Assistants in Doordarshan and AIR 2010 Model Paper

 Engineering  Assistants  in Doordarshan and AIR 2010

written test of two hours duration one paper having 175 objective type questions based on the syllabus of three years Diploma/B.Sc (Physics) 25 objective type questions on General Knowledge and Current Affairs. Each question will carry two marks. Negative marking will be resorted for wrong answer. One mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.

1. A particle is moving uniformly with an angular velocity ? on the circumference of a circle of
radius r. The linear velocity will be given by
(a) r?
(c) r/?
(d) ?/r
2. Line spectrum is obtained from the?
(a) Sun
(b) Filament of the bulb
(c) Mercury lamp
(d) Burning coal
3. A moving charge produces:
(a) neither electric field nor magnetic field
(b) electro-static field only
(c) magnetic field only
(d) both magnetic and electro-static fields
4. ?, ? and ?rays emitted from a radioactive source are passed through a 0.5 cm. thick aluminum
sheet. The out going radiations will consist of:
(a) ?, ? and ?ray
(b) ? and ?ray
(c) ?ray
(d) ?rays
5. Light year is a unit of
(a) time
(b) distance
(c) velocity
(d) acceleration
6. It is easier to draw up wooden block along an inclined plane than bang it up vertically
principally because:
(a) the friction is reduced
(b) only a part of the weight has to be overcome
(c) the mass becomes smaller
(d) g becomes smaller
7. If a piece of ice floating on the surface of water in a beaker melts completely, the level of
(a) rises
(b) remains the same
(c) falls
(d) initially rises and then falls
8. A Kelvin thermometer and a Fahrenheit thermometer used to record temperature of melting
metal, read the same. What will a celcius thermometer read at that temperature?
(a) 301.25°
(b) 273°
(c) 457°
(d) 760°
9. A hydrogen-filled balloon expands as it rises and may even burst after rising very high in the
atmosphere. This happens because:
(a) the temperature increases with height
(b) the temperature decreases with height
(c) the atmospheric pressure increases with height
(d) the atmospheric pressure decreases with height
10. if two substances of equal volumes but of different densities are dropped from the same
height simultaneously, then
(a) the body of lower density will reach the earth earlier
(b) both the bodies will reach the earth simultaneously
(c) The body of higher density will reach earlier
(d) It depends upon the place
11. When the bob of a pendulum is at the mean position (minimum displacement) of its motion,
its total energy is:
(a) all potential
(b) zero
(c) all kinetic
(d) partly kinetic partly potential
12. A red and a green pencil are taken in a room illuminated with green light. In the room:
(a) both pencils will appear dark
(b) pencils will appear as red and green respectively
(c) red pencil.will appear dark and green pencil as green
(d) red pencil will appear red and green pencil dark
13. The consumption of electrical energy in the household is measured in terms of:
(a) Kilowatt hour
(b) Kilowatts
(c) Joules
(d) Kilo Joules
14. A magnet is placed in earth’s magnetic field with north pole of the magnet pointing north. At
the neutral point:
(a) the earth’s magnetic field is zero
(b) the magnet’s magnetic field is zero
(c) the fields of the magnet and the earth are equal and in the same direction
(d) the fields of the magnet and the earth are equal and opposite
15. Sudden fall of a barometer reading indicates:
(a) storm
(b) dry weather
(c) fine weather
(d) cold weather
16. If a ball and a rectangular block of different metal when completely immersed in a liquid,
have the same loss of weight, then
(a) ball and rectangular block have same density
(b) ball and rectangular block have Weight in air
(c) ball and rectangular block have same volume
(d) ball and rectangular block have immersed to the same depth
17. If the period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is 4 seconds and we want to convert it into a
second pendulum, then we have to:
(a) make the length of the pendulum one fourth of the previous length
(b) double the length of the pendulum
(c) make the length of the pendulum half of the previous length
(d) double the mass of the bob
18. The escape velocity of a body from the earth depends upon:
(a) mass of the body
(b) radius of the earth as well as the value of g
(c) the radius of the earth only
(d) volume of the body
19. A cyclist taking a turn bends inside because:
(a) he feels pleasure in doing so
(b) he increases speed in doing so
(c) he obtains necessary Centripetal force
(d) he avoids accidents
20. If the surface of water in a lake is just going to freeze, then the temperature of water at the
bottom is
(a) 0°C
(b) 4°C
(c) 3°C
(d) none of these
21. The tangent law is applicable only when:
(a) there are at least two magnetic fields
(b) there two uniform magnetic fields mutually perpendicular to each other
(c) one strong magnetic field and the other weak magnetic field
(d) in the present magnetic fields one should be horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic
22. A moving coil galvanometer is converted into an ammeter by putting:
(a) a high resistance in parallel
(b) a low resistance in series
(c) a low resistance in parallel
(d) a high resistance in series
23. Lenz’s law is derived from the law of conservation of:
(b) energy
(d) magnetism
24. On which one of the factors does the sensivity of a galvanometer depend?
(a) number of the turns of the coil
(b) the temperature of the room
(c) the current flowing in it
(d) the potential difference between the two ends.
25. The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of:
(a) 0.1 cm
(b) 10 2cm
(c)10 -4cm
(d)10 -8cm
26. Lamps used for street lighting are connected in
(a) parallel
(b) series and parallel both
(c) series
(d) none of the above
27. A. C. can be measured with the help of:
(a) moving coil galvanometer
(b) hot wire ammeter
(c) tangent galvanometer
(d) galvanometer
28.A p-n junction is said to be forward biased, when
(a) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the p-semiconductor and negative pole to the nsemiconductor
(b) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the n-semiconductor and negative pole of the
battery is joined to the p-semiconductor
(c) the positive pole of the battery is connected to n- semiconductor and p- semiconductor
(d) a mechanical force is applied in the forward direction
Ans :a
29. At absolute zero, Si acts as ?
(a) non-metal
(b) metal
(c) insulator
(d) none of these
Ans :a
30. When N-type semiconductor is heated ?
(a) number of electrons increases while that of holes decreases
(b) number of holes increases while that of electrons decreases
(c) number of electrons and holes remain same
(d) number of electron and holes increases equally.
Ans :d
31. Radiowaves of constant amplitude can be generated with
(a) FET
(b) filter
(c) rectifier
(d) oscillator
Ans :d
32. In a common base amplifier the phase difference between the input signal voltage and the
voltage is ?
(a) 0
(b) pi/4
(d) p
Ans :d
33. When a triode is used as an amplifier the phase difference between the input signal voltage
and the output is ?
(a) 0
(c) pi/2
Ans :b
34. The depletion layer in the P-N junction region is
caused by?
(a) drift of holes
(b) diffusion of charge carriers
(c) migration of impurity ions
(d) drift of electrons
Ans: b
35. The following truth table corresponds to which Logic gate
A B Output
 0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
(b) OR
(d) XOR
Ans :b
36. To use a transistor as an amplifier
(a) The emitter base junction is forward biased and the base collector junction is reversed biased
(b) no bias voltage is required
(c) both junction are forward biased
(d) both junctions are reversed biased.
Ans :a
37. Which one of the following is the weakest kind of the bonding in solids
(a) ionic
(b) metallic
(c) Vander Walls
(d) covalent
Ans :c
38.For amplification by a triode, the signal to be amplified is given to
(a) the cathode
(b) the grid
(c) the glass-envelope
(d) the anode
Ans :b
39. A piece of copper and other of germanium are cooled from the room temperature to 80K,
(a) resistance of each will increase
(b) resistance of copper will decrease
(c) the resistance of copper will increase while that of germanium will decrease
(d) the resistance of copper will decrease while that of germanium will increase
40. Diamond is very hard because ?
(a) it is covalent solid
(b) it has large cohesive energy
(c) high melting point
(d) insoluble in all solvents
41. The part of the transistor which is heavily doped to produce large number of majority carriers
(a) emitter
(b) base
(c) collector
(d) any of the above depending upon the nature of transistor
42. An Oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with
(a) positive, feedback
(b) negative feedback
(c)large gain
(d) no feedback
43. When a P-N junction diode is reverse biased the flow of current across the junction is mainly
(a) diffusion of charge
(b) drift charges
(c) depends on the nature o material
(d) both drift and diffusion of charges
44. Which of the following gates corresponds to the truth table given below?
A B Output
1 1 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
0 0 1
(a) NAND
(b) OR
(c) AND
(d) XOR
45. Which of the following, when added as an impurity, into the silicon, produces n-type semi
(b) Aluminium
(d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’
46. The current gain for a transistor working as common-base amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter
current is 7.2 mA, then the base current is
(c)0.39 mA
(d) 0.43 mA
47. When a n-p-n transistor is used as an amplifier then ?
(a) the electrons flow from emitter to collector
(b) the holes flow from emitter to collector
(c) the electrons flow from collector to emitter
(d) the electrons flow from battery to emitter
48. When arsenic is added as an impurity to silicon, the resulting material is?
(a) n-type semiconductor
(b) p-type semiconductor
(c) n-type conductor
(d) Insulator
49. To obtain a p-type germanium semiconductor,it must be doped with ?
50. A semi-conducting device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A
current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current
drops to almost zero. The device may be
(a) A p-n junction
(b) An intrinsic semi-conductor
(c) A p-type semi-conductor
(d) An n-type semi-conductor
51. The transfer ratio beta of a transistor is 50. The input resistance of the transistor when used in
the common emitter configuration is 1 kOhm. The peak value of the co current for an A.C. input
voltage of 0.01 V peak is ?
(a)100 microA
(b) 0.01 mA
(c)0.25 mA
(d) 500 microA
52. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n diode is ?
(a) Depletion of positive charges near the junction
(b) Concentration of positive charges near the junction
(c) Depletion of negative charges near the junction
(d) Concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction
53. In forward bias, the width of potential barrier in a p-n junction diode?
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases then decreases
54. A depletion lay consists of?
(b) protons
(c)mobile ions
(d) immobile ions
55. Which of the following when added acts as an impurity into silicon produced n-type semi
(b) Al
(d) Mg
56. In a junction diode, the holes are due to
(a) protons
(b) extra electrons
(c) neutrons
(d) missing electrons
57. The intrinsic semiconductor becomes an insulator at
(c) 300K
(d) —100°C
58. For a common emitter circuit if IC/IE = 0.98 then current gain for common emitter circuit will
(d) 25.5
59. In a p-n junction
(a) The potential of the p and n sides becomes higher alternately
(b) The p side is at higher electrical potential than the n side
(c) The n side is at higher electrical potential than the p side
(d) Both the p and n sides are at the same potential
60. In the case of a common emitter transistor amplifier the ratio of the collector current to the
emitter current Ic/Ie is 0.96. The current gain of the amplifier is ?
(c) 24
(d) 12
61. if a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 5oHz mains, the fundamental frequency in the
tipple will be
(b) 25Hz
(d) 70.7 Hz
62. A n-p-n transistor conducts when ?
(a) both collector and emitter are negative with respect to, the base
(b) both collector and emitter are positive with respect to the base
(c) collector is positive and emitter is negative with to the base
(d) collector is positive and emitter is at same potential as the base
63. Barrier potential of a p-n junction diode does not depend on?
(a)doping density
(b) diode design
(d) forward bias
64. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode
(a) increases the minority carrier current
(b) lowers the potential barrier
(c) raises the potential barrier
(d) increases the majority carrier current
65. In semiconductors at a room temperature
(a) the conduction band is completely empty
(b) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
(c) the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled
(d) the valence band is completely filled
66. The output of OR gate is 1 when?
(a) if either input is zero
(b) if both inputs are zero
(c) if either or both inputs are 1
(d) only if both inputs are I
67. In a p-n junction photo cell, the value of the photo-electromotive force produced by
monochromatic light is proportional to ?
(a) the voltage applied at the p-n junction
(b) the barrier voltage at the p-n junction
(c) the intensity of the light falling on the cell
(d) the frequency of the light falling on the cell
68. Choose the only false statement from the following.
(a) in conductors the valence and conduction bands may overlap.
(b) Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are insulators.
(c) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.
(d) The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.
69. Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and
conduction bands are separated by energy band gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge
respectively. Which one of the following relationship is true in their case?
(a) (Eg)C> (Eg)Si
(b) (Eg)C< (Eg)Si
(c) (Eg)C=(Eg)Si
(d) (Eg)C< (Eg)Ge
70. Application of a forward bias to a p—n junction
(a) widens the depletion zone.
(b) increases the potential difference across the depletion zone.
(c) increases the number of donors on the n side.
(d) increases the electric field in the depletion zone.
71. Zener diode is used for?
(a) Amplification
(b) Rectification
(c) Stabilisation
(d) Producing oscillations in an oscillator
72. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that
plane becomes ?
(a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field
(b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the
magnetic field
(c) parallel to the magnetic field
(d) perpendicular to magnetic field
73. Tesla is the unit of
(a) magnetic flux
(b) magnetic field
(c) magnetic induction
(d) magnetic moment
74. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the
form of ?
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) dielectric strength
(d) heat
75. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in magnetic field depends
(a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(b) initial magnetic flux only
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only.
76. The magnetic induction at a point P which is at the distance of 4 cm from a long current
carrying wire is 10-3 T. The field of induction at a distance 12 cm from the current will be ?
(a) 3.33 x 10-4 T
(b) 1.11x 10-4 T
(c) 3×10-3 T
(d) 9×10-3 T
77. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is subjected to a field of magnetic induction
in negative X-direction. As a result, the charge will
(a) remain unaffected
(b) start moving in a circular path in Y—Z plane
(c) retard along X-axis
(d) moving along a helical path around X-axis
78. A uniform magnetic field acts right angles to the direction of motion of electrons. As a result,
the electron moves in a circular path of radius 2cm. If the speed of electrons is doubled, then the
radius of the circular path will be ?
(a)2.0 cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(d) 1.0cm
79. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a
plane perpendicular to magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular
orbit of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with
the same B is
(a)25 keV
(b) 50 keV
(c)200 keV
(d) 100 keV
80. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform
magnetic field of induction 2 Tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire.
The force on the wire is ?
(a) 2.4N
(b) 1.2N
(c) 3.0 N
(d) 2.0 N
81. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one needs to connect a ?
(a) low resistance in parallel
(b) high resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series
(d) high resistance in series.
82. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field
(a) torque is formed
(B) e.m.f is induced
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) none of the above
83. The magnetic field at a distance ‘r’ from a long wire carrying current ‘i’ is 0.4 Tesla. The
magnetic field at a distance ‘2r’ is ?
(b) 0.8 Tesla
(c)0.1 Tesla
(d) 1.6 Tesla
84. A electron enters a region where magnetic (B) and electric (E) fields are mutually
perpendicular, then ?
(a) it will always move in the direction of B
(b) it will always move in the direction of E
(c) it always possesses circular motion
(d) it can go un deflected also.
85. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of I
mm diameter carrying same current. The strength of magnetic field far away is?
(a) twice the earlier value
(b) same as the earlier value
(c) one-half of the earlier value
(d) one-quarter of the earlier value
86. At what distance from a long straight wire carrying a current of 12 A will the magnetic field
be equal to 3×10-6 Wb/metre Square
(a) 8×10-2 m
(b) 12×10-2 m
(c)18x 10-2 m
(d) 24×10-2 m
87. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B
at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to ?
(a) ?(B/v)
(b) B/v
(c) ?(v/B)
88. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a uniform field at magnetic
induction 10-4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 gauss). The orbital radius of the electron is ?
(a) 12cm
(b) 16cm
(c) 11cm
(d) 18cm
89. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have?
(a) a low resistance in series with its coil.
(b) a high resistance in parallel with its coil
(c) a high resistance in series with its coil
(d) a low resistance in parallel with its coil
90. A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a region having simultaneous
perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of strength 20 Vm-1 and 0.5 T respectively at right
angles to the direction of motion of the electrons. Then the velocity of electrons must be?
(a) 8m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 40m/s
(d) 1/40 m/s
91. A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ohms gives full scale deflection with a current of 0.004 A.
To convert it into an ammeter of range 1 A, the required shunt resistance should be?
(a) 0.38 Ohms
(b) 0.21 Ohms
(c) 0.08 Ohms
(d) 0.05 Ohms
92. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is
doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is ?
(a) 4B
(b) B/2
(c) B
(d) 2B
93. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field
directed vertically upwards. The particle will
(a) continue to move due east
(b) move in a circular orbit with its speed unchanged
(c) move in a circular orbit with its speed increased
(d) gets deflected vertically upwards.
94. Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 metre. Both of them carry one ampere of
current The force of attraction per unit length between the two wires is?
(a)2 x10-7 N/m
(b) 2 x10-8 N/m
(c) 5×10-8 N/m
(d)10-7 N/m
95. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 ohms is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If
the total current is 1 amp, the part of it passing through the shunt will be?
(a)0.25 amp
(b) 0.8 amp
(c)0.2 amp
(d) 0.5 amp
96. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then from the same length a coil of
two turns is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic
inductions at their centres will be?
97. Magnetic field intensity in the centre of coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current
of 2A is ?
(a) 0.5 x 10-5 T
(b) 1.25x 10-4 T
(c) 3x 10-5 T
(c) 4 x 10-5 T
98. When a proton is accelerated through I V, then its kinetic energy will be?
(a)1840 eV
(b) 13.6eV
(c)1 eV
(d) 0.54eV
99. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current,thin magnetic field is produced
(a)inside the pipe only
(b)outside the pipe only
(c)both inside and outside the pipe
(d) no where
100. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then
(a) velocity remains unchanged
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged
(d) acceleration remains unchanged
101. Which one of the following physical quantities, is not defined in the terms of force per unit
(a) pressure
(b) strain
(c) stress
(d) Young’s modulus
102. The distance moved by a moving body is equal to:
(a) area between the distance-time graph and distance axis
(b) area between the speed-time graph and time axis
(c) area between the distance-time graph and time axis
(d) area between the speed-time graph and distance axis.
103. A beaker containing water weighs 100 gm. It is placed on the pan of a balance and a piece
of metal weighing 70 gm. and having a volume of 10cc. is placed inside the water in the beaker.
The weight of the beaker and the metal would be :
(a) 170gm.
(c) 100gm.
104. For the same kinetic energy, the momentum shall be maximum for:
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) deuteron
(d) alpha particle
105. The common balance works on the principle of equality of:
(a) forces
(b) moments of forces
(c) masses
(d) masses of pans
106. A particle moves in a circle of radius R with a constant speed under a centripetal force F.
The work done in completing a full circle is:
(a) 2RF
(b) ?R2F
(c) 2?RF
107. When two quantities are plotted on the graph paper against each other and the result so
obtained is a st. line, then
(a) Both the quantities are equal
(b) The quantities are inversely proportional to each other
(c) Sum of both is zero
(d) The quantities are proportional to each other
108. What is the order of magnitude of 260°?
(b) 104
(d) 10
109. The maximum value of g is:
(a) At the poles
(b) At the top of the Mount Everest
(c) At the equator
(d) Below the sea level
110. A fixed volume of gas at 27°C exerts a pressure of 750 mm. If the gas is heated to a
pressure of 1500mm., temperature must be:
(a) 600°C
(b) 327°C
(c) 54°C
(d) 13.5°C
111. A body of mass 2 kg acted upon by a constant force, travels a distance of 3 metres in the
first second and a further distance of meter in the next second. The force acting on the body is?
(a) 12 Newtons
(b) 8 Newtons
(c) 4 Newtons
(d) 1 Newton
112. Two forces each equal to P acting at a point have no resultant. The angle between the two
forces must be equal to:
(b) 90°
(d) 120°
113. A jet engine works on the principle of:
(a) conservation of energy
(b) conservation of momentum
(c) conservation of mass
(d) conservation of temperature
114. A sharp knife cuts much better than a blunt one because?
(a) Area of sharp knife is much less than the area of the blunt one
(b) sharp knife is brighter
(c) sharp knife is colder
(d) sharp knife is costly
115. A man carries a heavy box on his head on a horizontal plane from one place to another.
In this he does?
(a) maximum work
(b) no work
(c) negative work
(d) minimum work
116. The bob of a second’s pendulum is replaced by another bob of double mass. The new time
period will be:
(a) 4 sec.
(c) 2 sec.
(b) 1 sec
(d) 3 sec.
117.A device for measuring temperatures at a distance is
(a) gas thermometer
(b) mercury thermometer
(c) radiation
(d) maximum-minimum thermometer
118. A piece of ice is floating in a concentrated solution of common salt (in water) in a pot.
When ice melts completely, the level of solution will:
(a) go up
(b) remain the same
(c) go down
(d) first go up then go down
119. A radioactive source has a half-life of 30 days. During a period of 90 days the fraction of
atoms that have decayed would be
(b) 87.5%
(d) 50%
120. A black body emits:
(a) radiations of all wavelengths
(b) no radiations
(c) radiations of only one wavelength
(d) radiations of selected wavelengths
121. A near sighted person cannot see distinctly beyond 50 cm. from his eye. The power in
diopter of spectacle lenses which will enable him to see distant objects clearly is
(a) +50
(b) —50
(c) +2
(d) —2
122. Size of a nucleus is of the order of?
(b) 10-14m
(d) 10-6m
123. The freezing point on a thermometer is marked as 20° and the boiling point as 150°C. A
temperature of 60°C on this thermometer will be read as:
(b) 65°
(d) 110°
124. In isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:
(a) heat content remains constant
(b) temperature remains constant
(c) both heat content and temperature remain constant
(d) pressure and temperature of the gas remain constant
125. A man standing between two cliffs hears the first echo of a sound after 2 sec. and the
second echo 3 sec. after the initial sound. If the speed of sound be 330 m/sec. the distance
between the two cliffs should be
(a)1650 m.
(b)990 m.
(c)825 m
(d) 660 m.
126. In a resonance tube experiment the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm. of air column and
the second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is equal to?
(a)0.5 cm
(b)1.0 cm
(c)1.5 cm
(d) 2 cm
127. The ratio of the specific heat of air at constant pressure to its specific heat at constant
volume is?
(a) zero
(b) greater than one
(c) less than one
(d) equal to one
128. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. When it is immersed in water it will behave
(a) a convex tens of 10 cm. focal length
(b) a concave lens of 10 cm. focal length
(c) a convex lens of focal length greater than 10cm.
(d) a convex lens of focal length less than 10 cm.
129. Two particles having charges q1 and q2 when kept at a certain distance exert a force F on
each other. If the distance between the two particles is reduced to half and the charge on each
particle is doubled the force between the particles would be ?
130. A small magnet is placed perpendicular to a constant magnetic field. The forces acting on
the magnet will result in?
(a) rotation
(b) translation
(c) no motion at all
(d) rotation as well as translation
131. A hollow metallic sphere is charged. Inside the sphere?
(a) the potential is zero but the electric field is finite
(b) the electric field is zero but the potential is finite
(c) both the electric field and the potential are finite
(d) both the electric field and the potential are zero
132. Two electric lamps each of 100 watts 220 V are connected in series to a supply of 220 volts.
The power consumed would be:
(a)100 Watts
(b) 200 Watts
(c)25 Watts
(d) 50 Watts
133. A transformer is:
(a) a device for stepping up D.C.
(b) a generator of current
(c) device for converting direct current into alternating current
(d) a device for stepping up or down the voltage of A.C. supply
134. Transistor act as a?
(a) conductor
(b) semi-conductor
(c) insulator
(d) thermionic valve
135. The sky is blue because:
(a) there is more blue light in the sunlight
(b) of scattering of sunlight by air molecules in the atmosphere
(c) of scattering of sunlight by dust particles in the atmosphere
(d) other colours are absorbed by heavenly bodies
136. A cyclonic storm is indicated by a change in the atmospheric pressure. In atmospheric
pressure there is a:
(a)sudden rise
(b) gradual rise
(c)sudden fall
(d) gradual fall
137. The electric field inside a hollow conducting sphere will ?
(a) increases towards the centre
(b) decreases towards the centre
(c) is finite and constant throughout
(d) is zero
138. Imperfect gases are those:
(a) which contain impurities
(b) which do not obey Charle’s and Boyle’s laws
(c) whose molecules are not spherical
(d) whose molecules cannot be regarded as point masses
139. Sonar is a device for:
(a) location and ranging of aircraft’s
(b) location and ranging submarines
(c) producing a musical note of high quality
(d) measuring frequency of musical notes
140. Cyclotron is a device to produce:
(a) atomic energy
(b) high energy electrons
(c) high energy photons
(d) high energy protons
141. Which one of the following is not a vector?
(a) Velocity
(b) Acceleration
(c) Force
(d) Energy
142. Two steel balls of mass 1 kg. and 2kg. and a lead ball of 10kg. are released together from
the top of tower 30 metres high. Assuming the path to be in vacuum
(a) the lead ball reaches the ground earlier
(b) the 1 kg. steel bail reaches the ground earlier
(c) all the balls reach the ground simultaneously
(d) the 2 kg. steel ball reaches the ground earlier
143. After a watch has been wound, it?
(a) has great energy stored in it
(b) possesses mechanical potential energy stored in it
(c) has eletrical energy stored in it
(d) has no energy in it
144. Two plane mirrors are set at right angles and a flower is placed in any position in between
the mirrors. The number of images of the flower which will be seen is?
(b) two
(d) four
(a) one
(c) three
145. In which of the following cases total internal reflection cannot be obtained?
(a) ray going from water to glass
(b) a ray going from glass to water
(c) a ray going from glass to air
(d) a ray going from water to air.
146. When white light passes through a glass prism, we get a spectrum on the other side of the
prism. In the emergent beam the ray which is deviated least is
(a) the violet ray
(b) the red ray
(c) the green ray
(d) the yellow ray
147. Magnetic storms are due to
(a) the rotation of the earth
(b) the revolution of the earth
(c) the rainy season
(d) the appearance off Sun spots
148. For dynamo which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) It converts the electrical energy into light energy
(b) It converts the kinetic energy into heat energy
(c) It converts the mechanical energy into electrical energy
(d) Jt converts the electrical energy into mechanical energy.
149. In a transformer the immediate cause of the induced A. C. in the secondary coil is?
(a) a varying electric field
(b) a varying magnetic field
(e) a motion of the secondary coil
(d) efficiency of the operator
150.A dynamo actually acts as a?
(a) converter of energy
(b) source of electric charge
(c) source of magnetic charge
(d) source of energy
151. Two long parallel wires P and Q are both perpendicular to the plane of the paper with
distance of 5 m between them. If P and Q carry current of 2.5 amp and 5 amp respectively in the
same direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between the wires is ?
152. A proton moving with a velocity 3 x 105 m/s enters a magnetic field of 0.3 Tesla at an angle
of 30° with the field. The radius of curvature of its path will be (e/m for proton – 108 C/kg)
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)0.02 cm
(d) 1.25 cm
153. A charged particle of charge q and mass m enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field B.
Kinetic energy of the particle is E; then frequency of rotation is?
(b) qB/2m∏
(d) qB/2E∏
154. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting?
(a) A high resistance in parallel
(b) A low resistance in series
(c) A high resistance in series
(d) A low resistance in parallel
155. A wire carries a current. Maintaining the same current it is bent first to form a circular plane
coil of one turn which produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the coil. The same length is
now bent more sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field at the centre
of the double loop, caused by the same current is ?
(b) B /4
(c) B/2
(d) 2B
156.A bar magnet is oscillating in earth’s magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its
period of motion, if its mass is quadruped ?
(a) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =T/2
(b) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 2 T
(c) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =4T
(d) Motion remains simple harmonic and the period stays nearly constant
157. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the
meridian, is n times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°.
The value of n is given by
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
158 . For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external electric arc, it should be ?
(a) Wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it
(b) Placed inside an iron can
(c) Surrounded with fine copper sheet
(d) Placed inside an aluminium can
159. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is?
(a) attracted by the poles
(b) repelled by the poles
(c) repelled by north pole and attracted by the south pole
(d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
160. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns N, then magnetic moment of
the coil is M= ?
(a) NiA
(b) Ni/A
(d) N2Ai
161. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with
the identical poles in the same direction. The time period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are
placed with opposite poles together and vibrate with time period T2 then ?
(a) T2 is infinite
(b) T2=T1
(d) T2 is less than T1
162. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(a) perpendicular to the field
(b) from stronger to the weaker pans of the field
(c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(d) in none of the above directions
163. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute
temperature T is proportional to?
(a) T2
(b) 1/T
(c) T
(d) 1/T2

Sunday, August 29, 2010

CAT 2010 Sample Questions Of Verbal Section

1. That the Third Battalion’s fifty percent casually rate transformed its assault on Hill 306 from a brilliant stratagem into a debacle does not – eyewitness reports of its commander’s extra-ordinary – in deploying his forces.
1. invalidate – brutality
2. gainsay – cleverness
3. underscore – ineptitude
4. justify – rapidity
5. corroborate -determination
Ans : B

2. No longer – by the belief that the world around us was expressly designed for humanity, many people try to find intellectual – for that lost certainty in astrology and in mysticism.
1. satisfied – reasons
2. reassured – justifications
3. restricted – parallels
4. sustained – substitutes
5. hampered – equivalents
Ans : D

3. In eighth-century Japan, people who – wasteland were rewarded with official ranks as part of an effort to overcome the shortage of – fields.
1. cultivated – domestic
2. located – desirable
3. conserved – forested
4. reclaimed – arable
5. irrigated – accessible
Ans :D

4. Clearly refuting sceptics, researchers have – not only that gravitational radiation exists but that it also does exactly what the theory- it should do.
1. assumed – deducted
2. estimated – accepted
3. supposed – asserted
4. doubted – warranted
5. demonstrated – predicted
Ans :E

5. Melodramas, which presented stark oppositions between innocence and criminality, virtue and corruption, good and evil, were popular precisely because they offered the audience a world – of -
1. deprived – polarity
2. full – circumstantiality
3. bereft – theatricality
4. devoid – neutrality
5. composed – adversity
Ans :D

6. Sponsors of the bill were-because there was no opposition to it within the legislative, until after the measure had been signed into law.
1. well-intentioned
2. persistent
3. detained
4. unreliable
5. relieved
Ans :B

7. Ecology, like economics, concerns itself with the movement of valuable – through a complex network of producers and consumers.
1. nutrients
2. dividends
3. communications
4. artifacts
5. commodities
Ans :C

8. Having fully embraced the belief that government by persuasion is preferable to government by – the leaders of the movement have recently – most of their previous statements supporting totalitarianism.
1. proclamation – codified
2. coercion – repudiated
3. participation – moderated
4. intimidation – issued
5. demonstration – deliberated.
Ans :B

9. It would be difficult for one so – to be led to believe that all men are equal and that we must disregard race, color and creed.
1. tolerant
2. democratic
3. broadminded
4. emotional
5. intolerant
Ans :E

10. Many philosophers agree that the verbal aggression of profanity in certain redical newspapers is not – or childish, but an assault on - essential to the revolutionary’s purpose.
1. insolent – sociability
2. trivial – decorum
3. belligerent – fallibility
4. serious – propriety
5. deliberate – affectation.
Ans :B

IGNOU B.ed Entrance Exam GK

1. The battle of Mahabharata is believed to have been fought at Kurukshetra for
(A) 14 days
(B) 16 days
(C) 18 days
(D) 20 days
Ans: (C)
2. The Mnkteswara Temple is located
(B) Belur
(C). Konark
Ans: (D)
3. Which king of the Gupta Dynasty was called the ‘Napoleon of India’?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(C) Sri Gupta
(D) Chandragupta-I
Ans: (A)
4. Between which two rulers was the First Battle of Panipat fought
(A) Akbar and BahIol Lodi.
(B) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
(C)Bairam Khan and Sikandar Lodi
(D) ShahJahan and Daulat Khari Lodi
Ans: (B)
5. Who is the author of Ain-i-Akbari?
(A) Abul Fazl
(B) Abdus Samad
( C) Bairam Khan
(D) Raja Todarmal
Ans: (A)
6. Match list’ I with list II and select the correct answef by
given below the lists:
List I                 List II
(a)Peshwas       I. Nagpur
(b) Gaekwad      2. Pune
(c) Bhonsles      3. Indore
(d) Holkers         4. Baroda
a     b          c          d
(A) 2     4          1          3
(B) 1     3          2          4
(C) 2     4          3.         1
(D) 4     3          2          1
Ans: (A)
7. Which reformer from Maharaslitia was known as Lokhitavadi?
(A) Pandit Ramabai
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M.G. Ranade,
(D) Gopal Han Deshmukh
Ans: (D)
8. ‘Din-e-Ilahi’ of. Akbar was not a success because
(A After Akbar, it was not patronised.
(B) The Muslim did not accept other religious practices.
(C) It was not suitably projected to the masses.
(D) All the above.
Ans: (D)
9. Who was the author of the book ‘My Experiments with Truth’?
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Bal Gangadhar tilak
(C) M.K Gandhi
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans: (C)
10.Give the correct chronological order
of the following events
1.Formation of Muslim League
2.Formation of All India Untouchability League
3. Formation of All India Trade Union Congress
4. Formation of Indian National Congres
(A) 2, 4, 1, 3
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans: (D)
11. 80% of the coal in India comes
(A) Jhatia and Raniganj
(B) Kantapalli and Singareni
(C) Singrauli and Korba
D) Neyvei
Ans: (A)
12. Dry zone agriculture in India contributes nearly 40% of the total
(A) Commercial crops
(B) Fodder crops
(C) Food crops
(D) Plantation products
Ans: (C)
13. The precipitation consisting of a mixture of snow and rain is
(B) Smog
(D) Fog
Ans: (A)
14. ‘Operation Flood’ was launched
1970 to
(A) control floods
(B) increase milk production
(C) improve water sources
(D) construct more dams
Ans: (B)
15. Photogrammetry is
(A) portraying gradient
(B) movement of setlines
(C) a method of solving geometrical problems
(D) use of photography in surveying and mapping
Ans: (C)
16. The spice State of India is
(A) Taniil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(D) Kerala
Ans: (D)
17. Jog Falls is found across the river
(B) Kabini
(D) Sharavati
Ans: (D)
18. Which of the following sea ports of
India is the main outlet for export of Tea ?
(A)Mumbai ‘
(B) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
Ans: (B)
19. The International Date Line passes through the
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Atlantic’ Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D)Arctic Ocean
Ans: (A)
20. Which of the following is not form of precipitation 7
(B) Snowfall
(D) Hail
Ans: C
21. Which of the following is a Great Circle?
(A) The Tropic of Cancer
(B) The Arctic Circle
(C) The Equator
(D) The Tropic of Capricorn
Ans: C
22. Tides in the sea have stored in them
(A) hydraulic energy
(B) kinetic energy
(C) gravitational potential energy
(D) a combination of all the above
Ans: D
23. Which component of blood is considered as the guard cell of our body?
(B) Platelets,
Ans: D
24. Camel can walk easily in the desert, because
(A)it has thick skin
(B)it can maintain water level in the body
(C)it has a layer of fat under the skin to combat heat
(D)it has long legs with padded paws
Ans: D
25.The function of arteries in ‘our body is to
(A) carry blood away from the heart
(B) purify the blood
(C) manufacture White Blood Corpuscles
(D) carry blood back to the heart
Ans: A
26. Plants climb by means of
(B) Roots
D) Branches
Ans: A
27. This term is associated’ with the Biology ef silkworms.
(A) Apiculture
(B) Sericulture
(C) Sylviculture
D) Pisciculture
Ans: B
28. Pick out the correct sequence of
a simple land food ‘chain
(A)1 2 3
(C)1 3 2
Ans: D
29. Sex in human beings is determined
(A) Vitamins
(B) Chromosomes
(C) Hormones
(D) Nutrients
Ans: B
30. Deficiency of  Fluorine in drinking water causes
(A) dental caries (cavity)
(B) dental fluorosis
(C) skeletal fluorosis
(D) goitre
Ans: A
31. In man, urea is formed in
(B) Liver
(D)Urinary Bladder
Ans: A
32. The most important function of perspiration is
(A) get rid of the body wastes
(B) regulate body temperature
(C) regulate body wastes
(D) lubricate the skin
Ans: B
33. ECG is the instrument that records
(A) potential difference of cardiac muscles
(B) rate of respiration’
(C) rate of glomerular filtration
(D) volume of blood pumped
Ans: A
34. Hot spot is an area having
(A) wide variety of species
(B) wealth of endemic species
(C) rich variety of flora and fauna
(D) conserving species in natural habitat
Ans: B
35. Electromagnet is used “in a
(A) Calling bell
(B) Computer
(C) Motor
(0) Washing machine
Ans: A
36. Kilo Watt Hour represents the unit for
(A) force
(B) power
(C) time
(D) energy
Ans: D
37. A transformer is used to
(A) convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
(B) convert alternating current into direct current
(C) convert direct current to alternating current
(D) transform alternating current voltage
Ans: D
38. Clear nights are colder than cloudy nights because of
(B) condensation
(D) insolation
Ans: C
39. What is condensation ?
(A) Change of gas into solid
(B) Change of solid into liquid
(C) Change of vapour into liquid
(ID) Change of heat energy cooling energy
Ans: C

Tamil nadu VAO Exam English

                                         General English
Directions—(Q.1 to 3) Substitute the Bold phrases with any of the given choices to express the opposite meaning in the sentences in following questions
1. She always praises everything I say
(A) picks holes in
(B) dislikes
(C) rebukes
(D) picks holes to
2. He often says how wonderful his school is?
(A) says he is unworthy
(B) appreciates
(C) runs up
(D) runs down
3. She said I was the best boss they’d ever had. It was obvious she was praising me sincerely.
(A) not appreciating me
(B) befooling me
(C) buttering me up
(D) disliking me
Directions—(Q. 4 to 6) Identify the part of speech of the Bold words in the given sentences from the following questions
4. I must perfect the operation to make the perfect robot.
(B) adverb
(C) adjective
(D) noun
5. A kindly person is one who behaves kindly.
(A) noun
(B) preposition
(C) adverb
(D) verb
6. He is not normally a very fast runner, but he runs fast in major events.
(B) adjective
(D) noun
Directions—(Q. 7 to 16) Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions
Antigone was one of the daughters of Oedipus, that tragic figure of male power who had been cursed by Gods for mistakenly killing his father and subsequently marrying his mother and assuming the throne of Thebes. After the death of Oedipus civil war broke out and a battle was waged in front of the seventh gate of Thebes, his two sons led opposing factions and at the height of the battle fought and killed each other. Oedipus’ brother, Creon, uncle of Antigone, was now undisputed master of the city. Creon resolved to make an example of the brother who had fought against him, Polynices, by refusing the right of honorable burial. The penalty of death was promulgated against any who should defy this order.
Antigone was distraught. Polynices had been left unburied, unwept, a feast of flesh for keen eyed carrion birds. Antigone asks her sister Ismene, for it was a challenge to her royal blood. “Now it is time to show whether or not you are worthy of your royal blood, is he not my brother and yours ? Whether you like it or not ? I shall never desert him- never I” But Ismene responds, “How could you dare,when Creon has expressly forbidden it? Antigone, we are women, it is not for us to fight against men.” With a touch of bitter ness, Antigone releases her sister from the obligation to help her, but argues she cannot shrug off the burden. “If  I die for it what happiness Live, if you will live, and defy the holiest of laws of heaven.”
7. What is the main theme of the story of Antigone?
(A) One must be truthful and honest
(B) There is a conflict between the laws of men and heavenly laws
(C) One must be true to one’s kins
(D) War is an evil
8. Why did Antigone decide to defy the orders of Creon?
(A) She loved her brother
(B) She was to give an honor able burial to her brother
(C) She felt she was bound by her heavenly obligation
(D) To teach Creon a lesson
9. What, in your opinion, would have been the logical end of the story?
(A) Antigone might have agreed with her sister and refrained from giving a burial to Polynices
(B) Antigone might have been allowed by Creon to give a decent burial to her brother
(C) Antigone might have defied the order of Creon but forgiven by him
(D) Antigone might have been executed for defying the order of the king
10. What was the status of women in the contemporary society ? They
(A) were liberated
(B) could have taken their own decisions
(C)considered  themselves inferior and subordinate to men
(D) claimed equality with men
11. Why did a civil war break out in Thebes ? The war broke out because
(A) of the curse of the Gods
(B) the brothers of Antigone were greedy
(C) there was a fight among sons of Oedipus for the inheritance of the kingdom
(D) there was a conflict between a son of Oedipus and Creon
12.       A carrion bird is a bird
(A)       of prey
(B)       which eats human flesh
(C)       which eats dead bodies
(D)       which eats only grain
13.       Why did Creon deny decent burial to Polynices ? He did so
(A) he did not love Polynices
(B) Polynices fought against Creon
(C) Polynices was disobedient to Creon
(D) Polynices did not show bravery
14.       Why did Ismene not support Antigone ? Ismene
(A) was weak and did not have the courage to defy  orders of the powerful king
(B) did not consider it right to defy the king
(C) did not think it fit to defy her uncle especially after the death of her father
(D)did not believe that Polynices deserved better treatment
15.Why did the Gods curse Oedipus? Because  Oedipus
(A) killed his father and married his mother
(B)killed his father
(C)married his mother
(D) committed an unknown sin
16.Does the story approve the principle of vicarious liability ?
(A)No, it does not
(B)Yes, it does, because of the acts of Oedipus his children suffered
(C) Yes, it does, because his father was killed by Oedipus
(D) Yes, it does, because he married his mother
Directions—(Q. 17 to 22) Select the meaning of the Bold idioms and
phrases in sentences in following questions
17. I have hit upon a good plan to get rid of him.
(A) found
(B) chanced upon
(C) decided to beat him
(D) borrowed
18. He is sticking out for better terms.
(A) threatens to take action
(B) insists on using the force
(C) decides to give concessions
(D) persists in demanding
19. He broke off in the middle of the
(A) failed
(B) began crying
(C) stopped suddenly
(D) felt uneasy
20.He refused to be led by the nose.
(A) to follow like an animal
(B) to be treated as a fool
(C) to follow submissively
(D) to be treated violently
21.The new cotton mill is mortgaged up to the eye.
(A) apparently
(B) completely
(C) deceptively
(13) actually
22. When they embraced a new religion, it is safe to say they did
it for loaves and fishes.
(A) selflessly
(B) honest reasons
(C) material benefits
(D) because of fear
Directions—(Q. 23 to 27) Choose the correct spelling out of four
(A)       Misogynist
(B)       Mysogynists
(C)       Mysoginists
(D)       Mysagynists
(A)       Aracnophobia
(B)       Aranchophobia
(C)       Arochnophobia
(13)      Arachnophobia
(A) Cinamon
(B) Cinnamon
(C) Cinnaman
(D) Cinaman
(A) Alcohol
(B) Alchohol
(C) Alchohal
(D) Alchohel
(A) Bioclymatalogy
(B) Bioclimatalogy
(C)   Bioclimatology
(D) Bioclimatelogy
Directions—(Q. 28 to 32) Select the correct meanings of the given
words in the following questions?
28. Lexicon
(A) number
(B)legal document
(D)captain’s dog
29.       Hex
(A) Crude person
(B) herb
(C) parrot
(D) evil spell
30.       Seminary
(A) chapel
(B) college
(C) convocation hail
(D) hostel
31. Liturgy
(B) priest
(D) church
(A) church members not baptized
(B) church members baptized
(C) priests
(D) church members who are not ordained priests
Directions—(Q. 33 to 37) Fill in the blanks in the following questions
33.       Slavery was not done away………………until the last century.
(A) with
(B) for
(C) to
(D) off
34.Does he not take………. his father?
(A) before
(B) for
(C) after
(D) like
35.       We will have to take………. More staff if we’re to take on more
(A) up
(B) onto
(C) into
(D) on
36. Mother takes everything in her ………………
(A) steps
(B) face
(C) stride
(D) work
37. Sale have really taken…… now.
(A) up
(B) on
(C) of
(D) off
Directions(Q. 38 to 40) The constituent phrases of a sentence are jumbled up in the following questions. Select the most appropriate sequence to make the sentence meaningful
38. (i) built on the site of a church destroyed
(ii) in the hilly area of the city is the famous Shandon Steeple
(iii) the bell tower of St. Anne’s Church
(iv) when the city was besieged by the Duke of Marlborough
(A) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i),(iv)
39. (i) no law giving effect to the policy of the state towards securing all or any of the principles laid in part IV
(ii) not withstanding anything contained in Article 13
(iii) and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect for such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy
(iv) shell be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by Article 14 to 19
(A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
40. (i) neither House shall proceed further with the sill
(ii) if he does so, The houses shall meet accordingly
(iii) but the President may at any time after the date of his notification, summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose specified in the notification and
(iv) where the President has under clause (1) notified his intention of summoning the Houses to meet in a joint sitting
(A)(iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
(B) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (iv), (ii) ,(iii), (i)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
1 B
2 D
3 C
4 A
5 C
6 A
7 A
8 B
9 D
10 C
11 C
12 C
13 B
14 A
15 A
16 B
17 A
18 D
19 C
20 C
21 B
22 C
23 A
24 D
25 B
26 A
27 C
28 C
29 D
30 B
31 C
32 D
33 A
34 C
35 D
36 C
37 D
38 A
39 A
40 B

Chhattisgarh Pre. B.Ed. Exam. 2008

Chhattisgarh Pre. B.Ed. Exam. 2008 

Teaching Aptitude 

1. Most important work of teacher is—
(A) to organize teaching work
(B) to deliver lecture in class
(C) to take care of children
(D) to evaluate the students

2. A teacher should be—
(A) Honest
(B) Dilligent
(C) Dutiful
(D) Punctual

3. Environmental education should be taught in schools because—
(A) it will affect environmental pollution
(B) it is important part of life
(C) it will provide job to teachers
(D) we cannot escape from environment

4. Navodaya Schools have been established to—
(A) increase number of school in rural areas
(B) provide good education in rural areas
(C) complete ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’
(D) check wastage of education in rural areas

5. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because—
(A) it develops self-confidence in children
(B) it makes learning easy
(C) it is helpful in intellectual development
(D) it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere

6. Women are better teacher at primary level because—
(A) they behave more patiently with children
(B) they are ready to work with low salary
(C) higher qualification is not needed in this profession
(D) they have less chances in other profession

7. You have been selected in all the four professions given below. Where would you like to go ?
(A) Teacher
(B) Police
(C) Army
(D) Bank

8. What is most important while writing on blackboard ?
(A) Good writing
(B) Clarity in writing
(C) Writing in big letters
(D) Writing in small letters

9. Some students send a greeting card to you on teacher’s day. What will you do ? You will—
(A) do nothing
(B) say thanks to them
(C) ask them to not to waste money
(D) reciprocate the good wishes to them

10. A student comes late in your class. Then you will—
(A) inform to parents
(B) punish him
(C) try to know the reason
(D) not pay attention there

11. When the students become failed, it can be understood that—
(A) The system has failed
(B) The teachers failure
(C) The text-books failure
(D) The individual student’s failure

12. It is advantage of giving home work that students—
(A) remain busy at home
(B) study at home
(C) may be checked for their progress
(D) may develop habit of self study

13. In computers, the length of a word is measured in—
(A) Bit
(B) Byte
(C) Millimeter
(D) None of these

14. Who is known as ‘father of computer’ ?
(A) B. Pascal
(B) H. Hollerith
(C) Charles Babbage
(D) J. V. Neumann

15. A teacher has serious defect is he/she—
(A) is physically handicapped
(B) belongs to low socio-economic status
(C) has weak personality
(D) has immature mental development

116. The success of teacher is—
(A) high achievement of students
(B) good traits of his/her personality
(C) his/her good teaching
(D) his/her good character

17. A Deepawali fair is being organized in your school. What would you like to do ?
(A) only to visit the fair
(B) to take part in function
(C) to take a shop to sell something
(D) to distribute free water to visitors

18. The most important trait of a student is—
(A) sense of responsibility
(B) to speak truth
(C) co-operation
(D) obedience

19. The purpose of basic education scheme is—
(A) universalization of primary education
(B) to vocationalise the eduction
(C) to fulfil basic need of persons through education
(D) to make education compulsory for all

20. You are teaching a topic in class and a student ask a question unrelated to the topic. What will you do ?
(A) you will allow him to ask unrelated question
(B) you will not allow him to ask unrealated question
(C) you will consider it indiscipline and punish him
(D) you will answer the question after the class

21. If you are unable to get a job of teacher, then you will—
(A) start giving tuition at home
(B) remain at home till you get a job
(C) take some another job
(D) continue applying for teaching

22. A teacher can motivate the students by—
(A) giving suitable prizes
(B) giving proper guidance
(C) giving examples
(D) delivering speech in class

23. If a student does not pay any respect to you, then you will—
(A) ignore him
(B) award less marks in examination
(C) talk to his/her parents
(D) rebuke him

24. National Literacy Mission was established in—
(A) 1996
(B) 1988
(C) 1999
(D) 2000

25. The aim of National Council for teacher education is—
(A) to open college of education
(B) to promote research in education
(C) to maintain standards in colleges of education
(D) to provide grant to colleges of education

26. Kindergarten system of education was contributed by—
(A) T. P. Nunn
(B) Spencer
(C) Froebel
(D) Montessori

27. ‘National Council of Educational Research and Training’ was established in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964

28. Essay type test are not reliable because—
(A) their answers are different
(B) their results are different
(C) their checking is affected by examiner’s mood
(D) their responding styles are different

29. A guardian never comes to see you in school.
You will—
(A) ignore the child
(B) write to the guardian
(C) go to meet him youself
(D) start punishing the child

30. To maintain interest among students in class, a teacher should—
(A) use blackboard
(B) discuss
(C) tell stories
(D) ask question

31. The purpose of new education policy is—
(A) to provide equal opportunity of education to all
(B) to improve the whole education system
(C) to link the education with employment
(D) to delink the degree with education

32. To raise the standard of education, it is necessary—
(A) to evaluate students continuously
(B) to give high salary to teachers
(C) to revise curriculum
(D) to make good school building

33. What is most important for a teacher ?
(A) to maintain discipline in class
(B) to be punctual in class
(C) to remove difficulties of students
(D) to be good orator

34. Why students should play games in school ?
(A) It makes them physically strong
(B) It makes work easier for teachers
(C) It helps in passing time
(D) It develops co-operation and physical balance

35. Family is a means of—
(A) Informal education
(B) Formal education
(C) Non-formal education
(D) Distance education

36. There is tension among villagers and you are teacher there. What will you do ?
(A) You will inform “Gram Pradhan”
(B) You will try to pacify them
(C) You will report to police
(D) You will keep distance from them

37. A teacher can develop social values among students by—
(A) telling them about great people
(B) developing sense of discipline
(C) behaving ideally
(D) telling them good stories

38. What will you do in leisure time in school ?
You will—
(A) take rest in teacher’s room
(B) read magazines in library
(C) talk to clerks in office
(D) check home work of students

39. A teacher asks the questions in the class to—
(A) keep students busy
(B) maintain discipline
(C) attract student’s attention
(D) teach

40. You like teaching profession because—
(A) it has less responsibility
(B) you are interested in it
(C) it is easy
(D) it provide you more holidays

41. How the students should be motivated to get success in life ?
(A) Selected study
(B) Incidental study
(C) Intensive study
(D) Learning by recitation

42. In context of the habit of Absenteeism of student—
(A) The principal and parents should get worried
(B) The officials of the schools should take action against them as per school’s discipline
(C) The teachers should take it as a serious problem
(D) They should be given less priority in the class room in relation to regular students

43. To whom the responsibility of organisation of curricular activities should be stored with ?
(A) The principal
(B) The teacher who is appointed for this work
(C) The teachers who take interest in it
(D) All the teachers

44. When the students try to solve the questions in some different way as taught by the teacher from prescribed books, then these students should be—
(A) Discouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(B) Encouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(C) Suggested to talk with their teacher after the period
(D) Suggested to follow the class room notes in order to get good mark in the examination

45. The experienced teachers do not require the detailed lesson plan of a topic because—
(A) They can teach in a good manner without its help
(B) The number of curious students is very poor in the class
(C) When they commit some mistake, they do not face any challange from their students
(D) They can equip themselves with brief outline as they gain specialisation in it through experience

46. The problem of drop-out in which students leave their schooling in early years can be tackled in a better way through—
(A) Reduction of the weight of curriculum
(B) Sympathy of teachers
(C) Attractive environment of the school
(D) Encouragement of the students

47. The ideal teacher—
(A) Teaches the whole curriculum
(B) Helps his students in learning
(C) Is a friend, philosopher and guide
(D) Maintains good discipline

48. The aim of education should be—
(A) To develop vocational skills in the students
(B) To develop social awareness in the students
(C) To prepare the students for examination
(D) To prepare the students for practical life

49. The best method of checking student’s homework is—
(A) To assign it to intelligent students of the class
(B) To check the answers in the class in group manner
(C) To check them with the help of specimen answer
(D) To check by the teacher himself in a regular way

50. A time bound testing programme for a students should be implemented in Shools so that—
(A) The progress of the students should be informed to their parents
(B) A regular practice can be carried out
(C) The students can be trained for final examinations
(D) The remedial programme can be adopted on the basis of the feedback from the results

51. The essential element of the syllabus for the children remained out of school should be—
(A) Literacy competencies
(B) Life-skills
(C) Numerical competencies
(D) Vocational competencies

52. The contribution of taxpayers in Primary education is in the form of—
(A) Income Tax
(B) Tuition Fee
(C) Paying money for individual tution
(D) Educational cess

53. The priority to girls education should be given because—
(A) The girls are more intelligent in comparison than the boys
(B) The girls are lesser in number than boys
(C) The girls were badly discriminated in favour of boys in the past
(D) Only girls are capable of leading for social change

54. The success of integrated education depends on—
(A) The support of community
(B) The excellence of text-books
(C) The highest quality of teaching-learning material
(D) The attitudinal changes in teachers

55. The quality of schools education is exclusively depending upon—
(A) Infrastructural facilities
(B) Financial provisions
(C) International support
(D) The quality of teacher education

56. The idea of Basic Education is propounded by—
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindranath Tagore

57. The most important indicator of quality of education in a school is—
(A) Infrastructural facilities of a school
(B) Classroom system
(C) Text-books and Teaching-learning material
(D) Student Achievement level

58. The best remedy of the student’s problems related with learning is—
(A) Suggestion for hard work
(B) Supervised study in Library
(C) Suggestion for private tuition
(D) Diagnostic teaching

59. The in-service teacher’ training can be made more effective by—
(A) Using training package which in wellprepared in advance
(B) Making it a residential programme
(C) Using co-operative approach
(D) Practising training followup procedures

60. Child Labour Prohibition Act (1986)—
(A) Prohibits all types of child labour upto 14 years of age of child
(B) Prohibits child labour in risk-taking works only
(C) Prohibits child labour during school hours only
(D) Prohibits child labour by imposing the responsibility of children’s education on the employers

1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (D)
51. (D) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A)

General Knowledge

61. Who is the author of the book “Chhattisgarh Geet Sangraha, Antas Ke Geet” ?
(A) Brij Mohan Agarwal
(B) Rajesh Chouhan
(C) Devendra Verma
(D) Dr. Raman Singh

62. The highest dam in India, Bhakra, is built ozn—
(A) Vyas river
(B) Jhelum river
(C) Sutlej river
(D) Ghaghara river

63. The currency of Myanmar is—
(A) Dollar
(B) Rupee
(C) Taka
(D) Kyat

64. Which is the smallest country (in population) ?
(A) Vatican city
(B) Nauru
(C) Monaco
(D) Palau

65. Who is associated with the term ‘Loknayak’ in India ?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Jay Prakash Narayan
(D) Madan Mohan Malviya

66. Which of the following sites has been included in UNESCO’s list of World Heritage Sites ?
(A) Chilka Lake
(B) Dal Lake
(C) Nagin Lake
(D) Sunderbans National Park

67. Which country won the ICC Twenty-20 World Cup ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Australia
(D) England

68. Indravati National Park is situated on the banks of river—
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Sone
(C) Ganga
(D) Indravati

69. Which water reservoir is the highest in Chhattisgarh ?
(A) Minimata Reservoir
(B) Ravishankar Reservoir
(C) Sondhoor Reservoir
(D) Kodar Reservoir

70. Who, out of the following, was the first recipient of Bharat Ratna Award ?
(A) B.C. Roy
(B) S. Chandrashekhar
(C) C.V. Raman
(D) Gobind Ballabh Pant

71. Trans-Siberian Railway terminals are—
(A) Moscow and Vladivostok
(B) St. Petersburg and Vladivostok
(C) Moscow and Krasnoyarsk
(D) St. Petersburg and Krasnoyarsk

72. Largest Mica deposits are in—
(A) South Africa
(B) India
(D) Australia

73. Heat stored in water vapour is—
(A) Specific heat
(B) Latent heat
(C) Absolute heat
(D) Relative heat

74. Force of deflection was first discovered by—
(A) Coriolis
(B) Ferrel
(C) Thornthwaite
(D) Koeppen

75. Contours are imaginary lines showing—
(A) places of equal atmospheric pressure
(B) same temperature areas
(C) places of equal altitudes
(D) equal sunshine areas

76. Which State of India has the largest area ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan

77. The fertile land between two rivers is called—
(A) Watershed
(B) Water divide
(C) Doab
(D) Tarai

78. At which place Chhattisgarh’s Super Thermal Power Station is located ?
(A) Raigarh
(B) Dantewada
(C) Korba
(D) Bhilai

79. Which of the following state has won the 2007 UNDP Award for Human Development Report in the category of Excellence in Participation and capacity building process ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Haryana
(D) Chhattisgarh

80. Which of the following pairs (Sanctuaries and districts) is not properly matched ?
(A) Achanakmar—Bilaspur
(B) Badalkhol—Jashpur
(C) Gomerda—Raigarh
(D) Udanti—Sarguja

81. The Unitary System of Government possesses which of the following advantages ?
(A) Greater adaptability
(B) Strong State
(C) Greater participation by the people
(D) Lesser chances of authoritarianism

82. Which one of the following is not an element of the State ?
(A) Population
(B) Land
(C) Army
(D) Government

83. According to the Indian Constitution, the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the—
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Parliament
(D) Supreme Court

84. The Parliament consists of—
(A) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(D) Vidhan Sabha, Vidhan Parishad and Lok Sabha

85. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

86. Which of the following is called the ‘powerhouse’ of the cell ?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Lysosome
(C) Chromosome
(D) Mitochondrion

87. Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is caused by—
(A) protozoa
(B) virus
(C) fungus
(D) bacteria

88. Which of the following processes does not increase the amount of cabron dioxide in air ?
(A) Breathing
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Burning of petrol
(D) Aerobic decay of vegetation

89. The vitamin that is most readily manufactured in our bodies is—
(A) vitamin A
(B) vitamin B
(C) vitamin C
(D) vitamin D

90. Which of the following metals occurs in free state ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Zinc
(D) Lead

91. The World Trade Organisation was formed in—
(A) 1991
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 1999

92. A Trade Policy consists of—
(A) Export-Import Policy
(B) Licencing Policy
(C) Foreign Exchange Policy
(D) Balance of Payment Policy

93. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ?
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Above (A) and (B)

94. The Swarajya Party was formed following the failure of—
(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(C) Quit India Movement
(D) Champaran Satyagraha

95. The largest standing army of the Sultanate, directly paid by the State, was created by—
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq
(D) Sikander Lodi

96. With which of the following centres of learning, Chanakya the famous teacher of Chandragupta Maurya, was associated ?
(A) Takshashila
(B) Nalanda
(C) Vikramashila
(D) Vaishali

97. Who among the following Rajput kings defeated Muhammad Ghori for the first time ?
(A) Prithviraj III
(B) Chalukya Bhim
(C) Jaichandra
(D) Kumar Pal

98. The Headquarters of United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) is located at—
(A) Paris (France)
(B) Geneva (Switzerland)
(C) New York (USA)
(D) Bangkok (Thailand)

99. ‘The Federal System with Strong Centre’ has been borrowed by the Indian Constitution from—
(A) United States of America
(B) Canada
(C) United Kingdom
(D) France

100. ‘Thomas Cup’ is associated with which game/sports ?
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Basketball
(D) Badminton

Answers :
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (D) 67. (A) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (C) 76. (D) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (D) 85. (D) 86. (D) 87. (B) 88. (B) 89. (D) 90. (A)
91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (A) 97. (B) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (D)
Jammu and Kashmir Common Entrance Test, 2008BIOLOGY 

1. Stem is modified into cladode :
(A) Casuarina
(B) Asparagus
(C) Opuntia
(D) Euphorbia

2. Verticillaster type of inflorescence is found in :
(A) Cotton
(B) Datura
(C) Lilium
(D) Ocimum

3. A simple one seeded fruit in which pericarp is fused with seed coat is :
(A) Achene
(B) Caryopsis
(C) Cypsela
(D) Nut

4. The portion of DNA which contains information for an entire polypeptide is called :
(A) Cistron
(B) Muton
(C) Recon
(D) Operon

5. Bicarpellary, syncarpous ovary with axile placentation is seen in :
(A) Solanaceae
(B) Caesalpinaceae
(C) Asteraceae
(D) Malvaceae

6. Alburnum is also called :
(A) Autumn wood
(B) Heart wood
(C) Sap wood
(D) Spring wood

7. The entry of pollen tube into the ovule through micropyle is called :
(A) Porogamy
(B) Mesogamy
(C) Anisogamy
(D) Chalazogamy

8. Type of pollination in Commelina is :
(A) Chasmogamy
(B) Geitonogamy
(C) Xenogamy
(D) Cleistogamy

9. The process of embryo formation without fertilization is known as :
(A) Apospory
(B) Apogamy
(C) Parthenocarpy
(D) Polyembryony

10. Which of the process Cholodny-Went theory is concerned with ?
(A) Photomorphogenesis
(B) Photoperiodism
(C) Phototropism
(D) Photorespiration

11. The hormone present in the liquid endosperm of coconut is :
(A) Cytokinin
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Ethylene
(D) Auxin

12. The phytohormone which influences apical dominance growth is :
(C) GA3
(D) C2H4

13. An example of short day plant is :
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Chrysanthemum
(D) Radish

14. The ovary after fertilization is converted into :
(A) Embryo
(B) Endosperm
(C) Fruit
(D) Seed

15. The molecular formula of Chlorophyll ‘a’ is :
(A) C55H72O5N4Mg
(B) C55H70O5N4Mg
(C) C55H72O6N4Mg
(D) C50H72O5N4Mg

16. The first compound that accepts CO2 during dark phase is :
(B) Ferrodoxin
(D) Cytochrome

17. Initiation codon for methionine is :

18. The deficiency of this micronutrient results in little leaf disease :
(A) Copper
(B) Zinc
(C) Boron
(D) Iron

19. Kranz anatomy is a morphological diversity in the leaves of :
(A) C3-plants
(B) C4-plants
(C) C3 and C4-plants
(D) CAM plants

20. Prechilling treatment to break seed dormancy is :
(A) Scarification
(B) Stratification
(C) Impaction
(D) Vernalization

21. The pyruvic acid formed during glycolysis is oxidized to CO2 and H2O in a cycle called :
(A) Calvin cycle
(B) Nitrogen cycle
(C) Hill reaction
(D) Krebs cycle

22. Respiratory quotient (RQ) is one in case of :
(A) Fatty acids
(B) Nucleic acids
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) Organic acids

23. An example of free living nitrogen fixing aerobic bacteria is :
(A) Clostridium
(B) Rhizobium
(C) Azotobacter
(D) Rhodospirillum

24. Identify the plant belonging to the Reed-Swamp stage in hydrarch succession :
(A) Juncus
(B) Sagittaria
(C) Salix
(D) Trapa

25. A gas produced by paddy fields and connected with global warming is :
(A) CO2
(B) Chlorine
(C) H2S
(D) Methane

26. If the strong partner is benefited and the weak partner is damaged, it is known as :
(A) Predation
(B) Allelopathy
(C) Symbiosis
(D) Commensalism

27. Acid rain is mainly caused due to increase in the levels of the gas(es) :
(A) SO2 only
(B) CO2 only
(C) SO2, CO2
(D) NO2 and SO2

28. The flow of energy among various trophic levels of an ecosystem is :
(A) Unidirectional
(B) Bidirectional
(C) Multidirectional
(D) Circular

29. Increase in atmospheric temperature due to CO2 is called :
(A) Pasteur effect
(B) Green-house effect
(C) Blackman effect
(D) Emerson effect

30. The protective-ozone layer is present in :
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Troposphere
(D) Lithosphere

31. Decomposition of organic matter is brought about by :
(A) Protozoa
(B) Plants
(C) Micro-organisms
(D) None of these

32. The smallest taxon is called :
(A) Class
(B) Order
(C) Genus
(D) Species

33. Which one of the following is the first National Park in India ?
(A) Kanha National Park
(B) Periyar National Park
(C) Corbett National Park
(D) Bandipur National Park

34. Which one of the following is having ssRNA ?
(B) T2-bacteriophage
(C) Polio Virus

35. In Whittaker’s system of classification, prokaryotes are placed in the kingdom :
(A) Protista
(B) Monera
(C) Plantae
(D) Animalia

36. Virus consists of :
(A) Nucleic acid and protein
(B) Nucleic acid
(C) Orotein
(D) None of these

37. This substance is present in the cell walls of Gram Positive bacteria only :
(A) Peptidoglycan
(B) Lipopolysaccharides
(C) Teichoic acids
(D) None of these

38. Highest degree of polymorphism is found in :
(A) Protozoa
(B) Cnidaria
(C) Platyhelminthes
(D) Arthropoda

39. Sea mouse belongs to phylum :
(A) Mollusca
(B) Cnidaria
(C) Arthropoda
(D) Annelida

40. One of the following animal belongs to Cyclostomata :
(A) Channa
(B) Loris
(C) Dodo
(D) Petromyzon

41. An egg laying mammal is :
(A) Delphinus
(B) Macaca
(C) Ornithorhynchus
(D) Macropus

42. In sharks, one of the following is absent :
(A) Claspers
(B) Placoid scales
(C) Cartilaginous endoskeleton
(D) Air bladder

43. The devil fish and sea hare are :
(A) Molluscs
(B) Crustaceans
(C) Coelenterates
(D) Marine fish and mammal

44. Endothelium of blood vessels is made up of :
(A) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(B) Simple squamous epithelium
(C) Simple columnar epithelium
(D) Simple non-ciliated columnar

45. In humans, sphincter of Oddi is associated with the opening of :
(A) Common hepatopancreatic duct
(B) Pyloric stomach
(C) Oesophagus
(D) Colon

46. In human beings, the duration of cardiac cycle is :
(A) 0•08 second
(B) 0•5 second
(C) 0•8 second
(D) 8•0 second

47. In which part of nephron, reabsorption is minimum from filtrate ?
(A) Henle’s loop
(B) Proximal convoluted tubule
(C) Distal convoluted tubule
(D) Collecting duct

48. Which hormone level reaches peak during luteal phase of menstrual cycle ?
(A) Luteinizing hormone
(B) Progesterone
(C) Follicle stimulating hormone
(D) Estrogen

49. The largest subunit of prokaryotic ribosomes is :
(A) 30S
(B) 40S
(C) 50S
(D) 60S

50. Which of the following is a part of endomembrane system of eukaryotic cell ?
(A) Peroxisomes
(B) Chloroplasts
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Golgi complexes

51. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called as :
(A) Gout
(B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Osteomalacia

52. Chromosomes are visible with chromatids at this phase of mitosis :
(A) Interphase
(B) Prophase
(C) Metaphase
(D) Anaphase

53. Inheritance of ABO blood grouping is an example of :
(A) Dominance
(B) Codominance
(C) Incomplete dominance
(D) All of these

54. In a dihybrid cross between RRYY and rryy parents, the number of RrYy genotypes in F2 generation will be :
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

55. Identify a 47, + 21 disorder from the following :
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Turner’s syndrome
(C) Phenylketonuria
(D) Klinefelter’s syndrome

56. Uracil is present in RNA at the place of :
(A) Adenine
(B) Guanine
(C) Cytosine
(D) Thymine

57. Copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is :
(A) Translation
(B) Transcription
(C) Transformation
(D) Transduction

58. S. L. Miller’s closed flask contained :
(A) CH4
(B) H2
(C) NH3 and Water vapour
(D) All of these

59. Change of frequency of alleles in a population results in evolution is proposed in :
(A) Darwin’s theory
(B) Lamarck’s theory
(C) Hardy-Weinberg principle
(D) De Vries theory

60. One of the following is the vestigial organ in human beings :
(A) Nictitating membrane
(B) Spleen
(C) Femur
(D) Tibia

61. The golden age of reptiles is :
(A) Cenozoic era
(B) Palaeozoic era
(C) Mesozoic era
(D) Silurian period

62. The theory of use and disuse of organ was proposed by :
(A) Darwin
(B) Lamarck
(C) De Vries
(D) Hooker

63. One of the following theories were proposed by Weissman :
(A) Law of inheritance
(B) Theory of inheritance of acquired characters
(C) Theory of natural selection
(D) Theory of germplasm

64. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny—
this theory is called :
(A) Biogenetic law
(B) Law of embryology
(C) Law of acquired characters
(D) Law of Bridges

65. The brain capacity of Homoerectus is :
(A) 800 cc
(B) 900 cc
(C) 1200 cc
(D) 1400 cc

66. An example of Innate immunity is :
(A) PMNL-neutrophils
(B) T-lymphocytes
(C) B-lymphocytes
(D) TH cells

67. Cocaine is extracted from :
(A) Erythroxylum coca
(B) Cannabis sativa
(C) Papaver somniferum
(D) Atropa belladonna

68. The enzyme that cuts DNA is :
(A) DNA-polymerase
(B) DNA-ligase
(C) DNA-lyase
(D) Restriction endonuclease

69. In the association between two organisms, if one organism is benefited and the other is not benefited, this relationship is known as :
(A) Symbiotism
(B) Mutualism
(C) Commensalism
(D) Parasitism

70. Opiate narcotics drugs are :
(A) Antianxiety
(B) Analgesic
(C) Hypnotic
(D) Antihistamine

71. The drug useful to increase cardiovascular effects in human beings is :
(A) Cocaine
(B) Barbiturate
(C) Benzodiazetine
(D) Insulin

72. In echolocation, the animal that produces high frequency sounds is :
(A) Monkey
(B) Butterfly
(C) Squirrel
(D) Bat

73. Two kingdoms constantly figured in all biological classifications are :
(A) Plantae and Animalia
(B) Monera and Animalia
(C) Protista and Animalia
(D) Protista and Plantae

74. The dioecious animal is :
(A) Liverfluke
(B) Hookworm
(C) Tapeworm
(D) Earthworm

75. Comb plates are found in :
(A) Adamsia
(B) Aurelia
(C) Nereis
(D) Pleurobrachia

Answers with Hints
1. (B) Cladode is a type of phylloclade consisting of one internode only. These are cylindrical (not fleshy) and are mistaken for leaves.
2. (D) Verticillaster is a complex inflorescence found in the Ocimum sanctum, a member of family Labiatae.
3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A)
8. (D) Cleistogamy is seen in underground flowers of Commelina bengalensis which are small and inconspicuous. This plant also bears chasmogamous blue flowers above.
9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (A)
13. (C) Short day plant (SDP) requires a relatively short day light period (usually 8-10 hrs.) and a continuous dark period of about 14–16 hours for subsequent flowering.
14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (B)
19. (B) Kranz anatomy—It is a typical structure in the leaves of plants that have a C4–pathway of CO2 fixation. The leaves contain a ring of mesophyll cells, containing a few chloroplasts surroundings a sheath of bundle sheath cells having large chloroplasts involved in the Calvin cycle.
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (A)
27. (D) Acid rain results from the emission into the atmosphere of various pollutant gases in particular sulphur dioxide (SO2) and oxides of nitrogen (NO2), which originate from the burning of fossil fuels and from motor-car exhaust fumes, respectively.
28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (D)
33. (C) The first National Park in India was set up in 1935 in the foot hills of Himalayas and was known as Hailey National Park. It is now known as Corbett National Park.
34. (A) Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) is a rigid rod-shaped ssRNA-containing virus that causes distortion and blistering of leaves in a wide range of plants.
35. (B) Kingdom Monera includes all prokaryotes. They are basically unicellular but can be mycelial, colonial and filamentous.
36. (A) 37. (A)
38. (B) A striking feature of cnidarians is the high degree of polymorphism often seen in a single species. Two basic types—sessile polyp and free-swimming medusa–occur.
39. (D) 40. (D) 41. (C)
42. (D) Members of Elasmobranchii subclass have no swim (air) bladders.
43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (C)
50. (D) Golgi complex is a part of endomembrane system, which is the system of internal membranes within eukaryotic cells that divide the cell into functional and structural compartments, or organelles.
51. (A) 52. (B)
53. (B) AB blood group in human is an example of codominance in which both the alleles IA IB are equally expressed. It means IA IB individuals have a phenotype that is essentially a combination of those shown by individuals with A and B blood groups.
54. (A)
55. (A) A small autosome, chromosome 21, added to the normal complement (47, + 21) causes Down syndrome. This is a trisomic for chromosome 21.
56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (A)
61. (C) The Mesozoic era is often known as the “Golden Age of Reptiles” as these animals, which included the dinosaurs and ichthyosaurs, became dominant lifeform.
62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (A)
68. (D) Restriction enzyme is a class of nucleases originally extracted from the E . coli. Type I restriction enzymes bind to a recognition site of duplex DNA, travel along the molecule and cleave one strand only. Type II cleaves the duplex at specific target site at or near the binding site.
69. (C) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (A) 74. (B) 75. (D)